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Borntrager test is used to identification of

Pharmacy Pharmacology D. Pharma B. Pharma

Q. 35 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 122)

Borntrager test is used to identification of

  • Senna
  • Squill
  • Cinchona
  • Digitalis

Ans → (a)Senna

Explanation →

This question is taken from this post → Online Practice Test for Pharmacy exams, previous Year questions - attemp/practice


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Q. 1 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 88)

Opthalmic solutions are not evaluated for:

  • Sterility test
  • Active ingredient
  • Clarity test
  • Pyrogen test

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Q. 2 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 89)

Which among the given is not suitable for controlled release dosase form

  • Diclofenace
  • Nicotine
  • Carbamazepine
  • Fentanyl

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Q. 3 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 90)

Kries test is related to

  • Skin sensitivity studies
  • Identification test of resin
  • Rancidity index
  • Identification test of aloin

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Q. 4 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 91)

Isoniazid causes hapatotoxicity due to

  • Its metabolite acetylhydrazine
  • Accumulation of isoniazid in hepatic cells
  • Its metabolite acetylisoniazid
  • Deficience of pyrifoxine caused by prolonged isoniazid theory

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Q. 6 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 93)

Metabolite of chlordiazepoxide is

  • Nordiazepam
  • Oxazepam
  • Demoxipam
  • All of these

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Q. 7 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 94)

Lemon Grass oil is obtained by steam distilation of the

  • Fresh leaves of Eucalyptus globulus
  • Fresh flowering tops of the menths piperata
  • Leaves of aerial parts of the cymopogon citratus
  • Pericarp of the ripe or nearly ripe fruits of citrus limonis

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Q. 8 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 95)

Azaspirodecandione agents are primarily used in the treatment of

  • Obsessive-compulsive disorders
  • Schizophrenia
  • Anxiety
  • Mania

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Q. 9 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 96)

Praracetamol is a derivative of:

  • p-amino phenol
  • Aryl acetic acid
  • Aryl propionic acid
  • Anthranilic acid

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Q. 10 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 97)

Efficiency of ball mill depends on

  • Rotational speed
  • Density of balls
  • Volume occupied by the balls
  • All of these

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Q. 11 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 98)

Which of the following properties of a drug is affected by micronisation

  • Flow properties
  • Chemical stability
  • Therapeutic effectiveness
  • All of these

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Q. 12 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 99)

The phosphate antiviral agent is

  • Ribavirin
  • Didanosine
  • Ganciclovir
  • Foscarnet

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Q. 14 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 101)

Which statement is not correct about levodopa?

  • In perkinsonism, phenothiazines reduce its efficacy
  • It is a prodrug
  • Pyridoxine reduces effect of levodopa in parkinsonism.
  • Domperidone blocks levodopa induced emesis and its therapeutic potential

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Q. 15 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 102)

Most widely used film former in nail lacquer is

  • Ethyle cellulose
  • cellulose acetate
  • cellulose nitrate
  • cellulose acetobutyrate

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Q. 16 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 103)

Which of the following metabolite of cyclophosphamide is responsible for its anti-tumor actitivity?

  • Phosphoramide mustard
  • Acrolein
  • Aldophosphamide
  • 4-hydroxy cyclophosphamide

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Q. 17 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 104)

The pH of tears is about

  • 6.0
  • 8.0
  • 7.4
  • 9.0

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Q. 18 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 105)

Food poisoning is caused by :

  • Clostridium tetani
  • Clostridium welchi
  • Clostridium botulinium
  • Clostridium septicum

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Q. 19 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 106)

Which animal is used for studying insulin preparations?

  • Horse
  • Pigeon
  • Rabbit
  • Chicken

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Q. 20 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 107)

Geiger muller counter is used in :

  • UV specroscopy
  • Ionisation methods
  • IR spectroscopy
  • NMR spectroscopy

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Q. 21 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 108)

Antipsychotic drug-induced parkinsonism is treated by

  • Trihexyphenidyl
  • Levodopa
  • Selegiline
  • Amantadine

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Q. 22 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 109)

As per drug and cosmetic act 1940 phenobarbitone sodium belongs to

  • Schedule L
  • Shedule X
  • Shedule R
  • Shedule O

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Q. 23 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 110)

Menthol is the main constituent of the volatile oil of

  • Pinus leaf
  • Peppermint leaf
  • Clove buds
  • Rose marry

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Q. 24 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 111)

The nitrogen in ephedrine is present as a

  • Primary amine
  • Secondary amines
  • Tertiary amines
  • Quarternary amines

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Q. 25 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 112)

Hardness of water is expressed in

  • mL
  • Dynes
  • ppm
  • Mhos

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Q. 26 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 113)

Sterilisation of packed food such as milk and meat products can be done by

  • Gas
  • Moist heat
  • Radiation
  • Dry heat

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Q. 27 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 114)

Chlorophyll test is positive in

  • Male fern
  • Clove
  • Rhubarb
  • Pale catechu

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Q. 28 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 115)

Removal of para-nitro group of chloramphenicol may

  • Increases the toxicity
  • Decreases bitterness
  • Decreses potency
  • Increases water solubility

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Q. 30 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 117)

Which one of the following is the initial step in the absorption of the drug from a tablet

  • Deaggregation
  • Diffusion
  • Disintegration
  • Dissolutuin

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Q. 31 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 118)

Fenbufen is used in

  • TB
  • Plague
  • Dengu
  • Inflammation

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Q. 32 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 119)

The female insect Coccus cacti is the source of

  • Honey
  • Canthrites
  • Shellac
  • Colchicine

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Q. 33 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 120)

Tragacanth in water is associated with

  • Plastic flow
  • Pseudoplatic flow
  • Dialatant flow
  • None of these

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Q. 34 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 121)

Antioxidants are added in lipstics to

  • Impart pleasant ordour
  • Staining of lips
  • Dissolving insoluble Pigments and dyes
  • Prevent rancidity

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Q. 35 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 122)

Borntrager test is used to identification of

  • Senna
  • Squill
  • Cinchona
  • Digitalis

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Q. 36 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 123)

Plasma protiens act as

  • Reserve protiens
  • Immunoglobulins
  • Buffers
  • All of these

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Q. 38 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 125)

An example of protien denaturation is

  • Dissolving sugar in water
  • Metabolism of meat
  • Heating milk
  • Heating egg

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Q. 39 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 126)

An enzyme catalysed the conversion of alddose sugar to ketose sugar would be classified as

  • Isomerases
  • Transferases
  • Hydrolysases
  • Oxydoreductases

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Q. 40 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 127)

The constituent of essential oil is

  • Polyterpenoid
  • Tetraterpenoid
  • mono and sesquiterpenoid
  • Triterpenoid

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Q. 41 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 128)

Which of the given combination has an intraction, beneficial for routine clinical use?

  • Hydralazine and atenolol
  • Metochlopramide and levodopa
  • Quinidine and digoxine
  • Furosemide and lithium carbonate

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Q. 42 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 129)

Hyperuricemia is associated with the the abnormal metabolism of

  • Purine
  • Thiamine
  • Riboflavin
  • Pyrimidine

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Q. 43 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 130)

Active immunity is induced by

  • Placental transfer of antibodies
  • Infection
  • Injection of gamma-globulins
  • Injection of antibodies

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Q. 44 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 131)

HIV infection can be clinical controlled with

  • Ribavirin
  • Ganciclovir
  • Stavudine
  • Acyclovir

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Q. 45 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 132)

An anti-arrythmic drug that is also used to control seizures is

  • Lidocain
  • Disipyramide
  • Phenytoin
  • Amiodarone

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Q. 46 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 133)

Drug of choice for thyroid storm is

  • Carbimazole
  • Radioactive iodine
  • Propyl thiouracil
  • Centimizone

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Q. 47 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 134)

The cellular organells called 'suiside bags' are

  • Lysosomes
  • Nucleolus
  • Ribosomes
  • Golgi's bodies

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Q. 48 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 135)

The drug included in 'dope test' for athletes is

  • Propranolol
  • Prazocine
  • Dexamphetamine
  • Diazepam

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Q. 49 of Quiz-66 (Que-ID : 136)

Fifth edition of I.P. was published in the year

  • 1985
  • 1996
  • 2007
  • 2015

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More MCQs In - Pharmacy Pharmacology D. Pharma B. Pharma

Q. 23 of Quiz- (Que-ID : 1116)

Which one of these sulpha drug possess guanidine, used in bacillary dysentery?

  • Sulphadiazine
  • Sulphadimidine
  • Sulphaguanidine
  • Sulphasomidine

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Q. 29 of Quiz- (Que-ID : 1409)

Bees wax mainly contains-

  • Palmitin
  • Myricin
  • Stearin
  • Cerotic acid

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Q. 22 of Quiz- (Que-ID : 4928)

Which dosage form bypasses first-pass metabolism?

  • Oral tablet
  • Sublingual tablet
  • Capsule
  • Suppository

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Q. 11 of Quiz- (Que-ID : 513)

A 20 weeks pregnancy can be terminated with the consent of:

  • Doctor holding MBBS degree
  • Doctor holding M.D. degree
  • Gynecologist
  • Two registered medical practitionars

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Q. 3 of Quiz- (Que-ID : 1832)

Water borne disease is-

  • Tuberculosis
  • cholera
  • measles
  • influenza

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Q. 4 of Quiz- (Que-ID : 1384)

Quinine and quinidine is differ in-

  • Chemical structure
  • solubility
  • In rotating the plane of polarized light
  • none of the above

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Directions : For each question, choose a correct option from given four options (A, B, C and D)

Q. 25 of Quiz- (Que-ID : 1239)

Low bioavailability indicates that-

  • drug is poorly absorbed
  • drug is rapidly metabolised
  • drug is not properly relesaed from the formulation
  • all of the above

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Directions : For each question, choose a correct option from given four options (A, B, C and D)

Q. 5 of Quiz- (Que-ID : 1219)

which one of these is used to increase the serum level of penicilline?

  • Aspirin
  • Ranitidine
  • Probenecid
  • Aluminium hydroxide gel

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Q. 96 of Quiz- (Que-ID : 273)

Which one of these posssess cytotoxic action?

  • Podophillum emodi
  • Ipomoea hederacea
  • Curcuma longa
  • None of these

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Q. 99 of Quiz- (Que-ID : 276)

Which of the following is used as emetic?

  • Agar
  • Isphagula
  • Ipecac
  • Ginseng

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Q. 17 of Quiz- (Que-ID : 3867)

Starch is hydrolysed by enzyme

  • Lactose
  • Amylase
  • Aldolase
  • Phosphatase

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Q. 5 of Quiz- (Que-ID : 66)

Fexofenadine is __________ antihistaminics.

  • Highly sedative
  • Moderately sedetive
  • Mildly sedative
  • non-sedative

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Q. 17 of Quiz- (Que-ID : 104)

The pH of tears is about

  • 6.0
  • 8.0
  • 7.4
  • 9.0

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Q. 29 of Quiz- (Que-ID : 4935)

What is the use of mannitol in pharmacy?

  • Diuretic
  • Antibiotic
  • Analgesic
  • Antifungal

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Q. 4 of Quiz- (Que-ID : 1470)

Vaginal suppositories are also known as …

  • Gels
  • Liniments
  • Poultice
  • Pessaries

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Q. 2 of Quiz- (Que-ID : 89)

Which among the given is not suitable for controlled release dosase form

  • Diclofenace
  • Nicotine
  • Carbamazepine
  • Fentanyl

Discuss View Answer

Q. 30 of Quiz- (Que-ID : 4936)

Which of the following is a sedative-hypnotic agent?

  • Paracetamol
  • Diazepam
  • Aspirin
  • Metformin

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Q. 23 of Quiz- (Que-ID : 1373)

Double helix structure of DNA was proposed by-

  • Lewis
  • Chargaff's
  • James Watson and crick
  • Mandel

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Q. 7 of Quiz- (Que-ID : 1387)

Sarpagandha is related to-

  • Rauwolfia
  • Arjuna
  • Nux-vomica
  • Physostigma

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Q. 35 of Quiz- (Que-ID : 212)

Lipid soloble drugs are better absorbed when:

  • Given with meal
  • Given 3 hours after meal
  • Given 1/2 hours before meal
  • both (b) and (c)

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Q. 3 of Quiz- (Que-ID : 1312)

Type of relationship of street vendor is-

  • small scale fixed retailer
  • large scale retailer
  • Itinerant retailer
  • Pertinent retailer

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Q. 47 of Quiz- (Que-ID : 4953)

Which type of immunity is passed from mother to child?

  • Active immunity
  • Artificial immunity
  • Passive natural immunity
  • Adaptive immunity

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Q. 53 of Quiz- (Que-ID : 230)

From these β-blockers, which one is used in glaucoma?

  • Propranolol
  • atenolol
  • timolol
  • metoprolol

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Q. 16 of Quiz- (Que-ID : 4922)

Which of the following is a third-generation cephalosporin?

  • Cephalexin
  • Ceftriaxone
  • Cefuroxime
  • Cefazolin

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Q. 1 of Quiz- (Que-ID : 411)

Suganril is common brand name for:

  • Phenylbutazone
  • Piroxican
  • Benorylate
  • Indomethacin

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Q. 4 of Quiz- (Que-ID : 91)

Isoniazid causes hapatotoxicity due to

  • Its metabolite acetylhydrazine
  • Accumulation of isoniazid in hepatic cells
  • Its metabolite acetylisoniazid
  • Deficience of pyrifoxine caused by prolonged isoniazid theory

Discuss View Answer

Q. 29 of Quiz- (Que-ID : 1379)

Cynocobalamine is the metabolic effect of-

  • Bacillus pumulis
  • Streptomyces griseus
  • Bacillus subtilis
  • Bacillus sterothermophilus

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Q. 28 of Quiz- (Que-ID : 671)

Drug that shows selective antagonistic selective H1 antagonistic action?

  • Chlorpheniramine
  • Cimetidine
  • Ranitidine
  • Thioperamide

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Q. 7 of Quiz- (Que-ID : 1564)

Drugs converted to suitable form are known as

  • Dosage form
  • Excipients
  • API
  • Diluents

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Q. 2 of Quiz- (Que-ID : 1479)

Functions of modern hospitals include…

  • Doctors & nurses receive training
  • Lowers the incidence of disease
  • Raises the quality of care & standards of medical practice
  • All of them

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Q. 10 of Quiz- (Que-ID : 20)

First line drug for tuberculosis unclude :

  • Isoniazid + ethambutol + pyrizinamide
  • Isoniazid + Rifampin + ethambutol + pyrizinamide
  • Isoniazid + Refampin + ethambutol + para amino salicylic acid
  • Isoniazid + Cycloserine + ethambutol + pyrazinamide

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Q. 10 of Quiz- (Que-ID : 3860)

Increase in number of erythrocytes

  • Poikilocytosis
  • Reticulocytes
  • displacia
  • Polycythemia

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Q. 6 of Quiz- (Que-ID : 1835)

In liver, Glucose is stored as-

  • Starch
  • Glycogen
  • Sucrose
  • Lactose

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Q. 8 of Quiz- (Que-ID : 95)

Azaspirodecandione agents are primarily used in the treatment of

  • Obsessive-compulsive disorders
  • Schizophrenia
  • Anxiety
  • Mania

Discuss View Answer

Q. 11 of Quiz- (Que-ID : 1134)

Aqueous alcoholic solution of volatile oil is called?

  • Aromatic water
  • Elixirs
  • Tinctures
  • Spirits

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Q. 17 of Quiz- (Que-ID : 1367)

Treatment of glycogen with iodine shows which colour?

  • Violet
  • Green
  • Red
  • Yellow

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Q. 6 of Quiz- (Que-ID : 1533)

Which types of neurons are likely to increase muscular activities?

  • bipolar neurons
  • inhibitory neurons
  • sensory neurons
  • accelerator neurons

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Q. 6 of Quiz- (Que-ID : 1513)

Select the drug which is administered orally for erectile dysfunction in men

  • Albendazole
  • Mebendazole
  • Cocaine
  • Sildenafil

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Q. 30 of Quiz- (Que-ID : 1708)

which of the following is used as Rust inhibitor?

  • Sodium nitrite
  • liquid nitrogen
  • Calcium carbide
  • sodium thiosulphate

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Q. 24 of Quiz- (Que-ID : 1177)

The process of grinding a substance to very fine powder is termed -

  • Trituration
  • Sublimation
  • Percolation
  • Levigation

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Q. 1 of Quiz- (Que-ID : 1064)

Commonly used amide type of local anesthetic agent is

  • Procaine
  • Benzocaine
  • Amethocaine
  • Lignocaine

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Q. 10 of Quiz- (Que-ID : 2212)

Antacids forms metal complexes with-

  • Chloramphenicol
  • Paracetamol
  • Tetracycline
  • Cephalosporin's

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Q. 15 of Quiz- (Que-ID : 688)

Tablet is film coated with

  • cellulose acetate phthalate
  • Cellulose
  • Hydroxy propyle methyle cellulose
  • carboxy methyle cellulose

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Q. 2 of Quiz- (Que-ID : 1674)

A good example of chemical antagonism

  • Heparin & Protamine
  • Protamine & Zinc
  • Heparin & Prothrombin
  • All the above

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