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Name the enzyme that bound with a cofactor or coenzyme
Microbiology Pharmacist Competitive Exams
Q. Name the enzyme that bound with a cofactor or coenzyme
Ans → holoenzyme
Explanation →
This question is taken from the test/quiz post: Microbiology Important questions (one liners Set - 7) Pharmacy - attemp/practice
More oneliners in - Microbiology Important questions (one liners Set - 7) Pharmacy
Q. Name the process producing a mixture of lactic acid, ethanol and/or acetic acid, and CO2 as fermentation products
Ans → heterolactic fermentation
Explanation →
Q. Name the organism that uses fixed organic carbon compounds as its carbon source
Ans → heterotroph
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Q. Name the bacteria that have more than 50% guanine and cytosine nucleotides in their DNA
Ans → high G+C gram-positive bacteria
Explanation →
Q. Which bond is formed between the negatively charged phosphate groups that holds a lot of potential energy
Ans → high-energy phosphate bond
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Q. Name the large group of antigens bound by antibodies; large enough to settle out of fluid suspension
Ans → immune complex
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Q. A staining technique in which cells are fixed and holes dissolved in the membrane to allow passage of labeled antibodies to bind specific intracellular targets
Ans → immunocytochemistry (ICC)
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Q. Technique in which antibody or antigen can be concentrated by passing fluids through porous membranes, and target molecules are captured as they pass
Ans → immunofiltration
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Q. Fungal disease caused by the dimorphic fungus Histoplasma capsulatum
Ans → histoplasmosis
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Q. A technique that uses a fluorescence microscope and antibody-specific fluorochromes to determine the presence of specific pathogens in a specimen
Ans → immunofluorescence
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Q. A staining technique in which labeled antibodies are bound to specific cells in a tissue section
Ans → immunohistochemistry (IHC)
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Q. DNA-binding proteins found in eukaryotes and archaea that aid in orderly packaging of chromosomal DNA
Ans → histones
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Q. Outside the organism in a test tube or artificial environment is known as
Ans → in vitro
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Q. Proinflammatory molecule released by basophils and mast cells in response to stimulation by other cytokines and chemical mediators
Ans → histamine
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Q. This refers to protozoans that consume food particles through phagoctytosis
Ans → holozoic
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Q. Name the process producing only lactic acid as a fermentation product
Ans → homolactic fermentation
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Q. Vaccine composed of whole pathogen cells or viruses that have been killed or inactivated through treatment with heat, radiation, or chemicals
Ans → inactivated vaccine
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Q. Name the retrovirus responsible for acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) in humans
Ans → human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
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Q. The number of individuals with new infections of a particular disease in a given period of time is called
Ans → incidence
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Q. Movement of a pathogen from one host to another population through physical contact or through droplet transmission
Ans → horizontal direct transmission
Explanation →
Q. Inflammation of the conjunctiva in newborns caused by Chlamydia trachomatis transmitted during childbirth is
Ans → inclusion conjunctivitis
Explanation →
Q. Name the prokaryotic cell cytoplasmic structures for storing specific nutrients and other resources needed by cells
Ans → inclusions
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Q. Introduction of genetic material from one organism to another organism within the same generation
Ans → horizontal gene transfer
Explanation →
Q. The first stage of acute disease, during which the pathogen begins multiplying in the host and signs and symptoms are not observable
Ans → incubation period
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Q. The successful colonization of a microorganism within a host is called as
Ans → infection
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Q. Name the types of host cells that a particular virus is able to infect
Ans → host range
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Q. Highly contagious and acute viral disease of the respiratory tract caused by the influenza virus
Ans → influenza
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Q. Serious infection caused by Trypanosoma brucei and spread by the bite of the tsetse fly
Ans → human African trypanosomiasis
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Q. Proteins that participate in ribosome assembly during initiation
Ans → initiation factors
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Q. A group of common sexually transmitted viruses that may be associated with genital warts or with cervical cancer
Ans → human papillomavirus (HPV)
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Q. Name the adaptive immunity mediated by antibodies produced by B cells
Ans → humoral immunity
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Q. Name the enzyme produced by pathogens that degrades hyaluronic acid between adjacent cells in connective tissue
Ans → hyaluronidase
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Q. The stage of replication during which various proteins bind to the origin of replication to begin the replication process
Ans → initiation of DNA replication
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Q. The stage of transcription during which RNA polymerase binds to a promoter and transcription begins
Ans → initiation of transcription
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Q. The the joining of two complementary single-stranded DNA molecules
Ans → hybridization
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Q. Small number of cells added to medium to start a culture is commonly called
Ans → inoculum
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Q. Type of mutation involving the addition of one or more bases into a DNA sequence
Ans → insertion
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Q. The clones of cell produced by fusing a normal B cell with a myeloma cell that is capable of producing monoclonal antibodies indefinitely
Ans → hybridoma
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Q. Refers to a polar molecule or portion of a molecule capable of strong attraction to water molecules
Ans → hydrophilic
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Q. Cytokines largely produced by immune system cells that help coordinate efforts against invading pathogens
Ans → interleukins
Explanation →
Q. Refers to a nonpolar molecule or portion of a molecule not capable of strong attraction to water molecules
Ans → hydrophobic
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Q. A host in which a parasite goes through some stages of its life cycle before migrating to the definitive host
Ans → intermediate host
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Q. Potentially damaging immune response against an antigen is called
Ans → hypersensitivity
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Q. A Substance that absorbs sufficient moisture from the atmosphere to dissolve itself.
Ans → deliquescent
Explanation →
Q. Part of the orbital area in an atom where it is impossible to find an electron.
Ans → node
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Q. A chemical formula where electrons are represented with dots. Covalent bonds are represented with a line connecting two atoms—the line represents two electrons.
Ans → Lewis Structure
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Q. The inorganic element found in the structure of majority of high-energy compounds
Ans → Phosphorus
Explanation →
Q. A graph of the energy of a reaction against the progress of the reaction.
Ans → energy diagram
Explanation →
Q. Method by which powder particles are compressed into a large tablet, called a slug, which is subse- quently dry-screened and compressed into a tablet.
Ans → slugging
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Q. Leukocytes found in the peripheral blood that are characterized by numerous granules
Ans → granulocytes
Explanation →
Q. A virus composed of a nucleic acid core, either DNA or RNA, surrounded by a capsid
Ans → naked virus
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Q. The science of studying a collection of mRNA molecules produced from microbial communities
Ans → metatranscriptomics
Explanation →
Q. An instrument used to measure the amount of rotation of plane polarized light by a compound, generally prepared in a solution
Ans → polarimeter
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Q. Introduction of genetic material from one organism to another organism within the same generation
Ans → horizontal gene transfer
Explanation →
Q. The most important carbohydrate associated with flatulence caused by ingestion of leguminous seeds
Ans → Raffinose
Explanation →
Q. A a special objective lens on a microscope designed to be used with immersion oil to improve resolution
Ans → oil immersion lens
Explanation →
Q. The amino acids are said to be ketogenic when the carbon skeleton is finally degraded to
Ans → Acetyl CoA
Explanation →
Q. The regulatory enzyme in the pyrimidine biosynthesis in animals is
Ans → Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase II
Explanation →
Q. Name leukocytes found in the peripheral blood that are characterized by numerous granules in the cytoplasm
Ans → granulocytes
Explanation →
Q. Name the painless ulcer that develops at the site of infection in primary syphilis
Ans → hard chancre
Explanation →
Q. Name a common STI of the reproductive system caused by Neisseria gonorrhoeae
Ans → gonorrhea
Explanation →
Q. DNA sequence located between the promoter region and the first coding gene to which a repressor protein can bind
Ans → operator
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Q. The energy needed to remove an electron from a gaseous atom.
Ans → ionization energy
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Q. Name hypothyroidism caused by an autoimmune disease affecting thyroid function
Ans → Hashimoto thyroiditis
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Q. Name the plasmid containing genes encoding proteins that make a bacterial cell resistant to one or more antibiotics
Ans → R plasmid
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Q. A ligand that binds to a receptor and alters the receptor state resulting in a biological response.
Ans → Agonist
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Q. Name the antibody dimer primarily found in breast milk, mucus, saliva, and tears
Ans → IgA
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Q. Antibody monomer involved in defense against parasites and allergic reactions
Ans → IgE
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Q. Reactions in which an unsaturated system is saturated or part saturated by the addition of a molecule across the multiple bond.
Ans → addition reactions
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Q. A partial agonist is an agonist that produces a maximal response that is less than the maximal response produced by another agonist acting at the same receptors on the same tissue.
Ans → Partial Agonist
Explanation →
Q. The mechanism by which regulatory T cells inhibit self-reactive immune responses in T cells that have already exited the thymus
Ans → peripheral tolerance
Explanation →
Q. The movement of chemicals (drugs) into, through, and out of biological organisms or their parts.
Ans → Biotranslocation
Explanation →
Q. Name the structure embedded in the dermis from which hair grows
Ans → hair follicle
Explanation →
Q. Proteins that participate in ribosome assembly during initiation
Ans → initiation factors
Explanation →
Q. Fungal disease caused by the dimorphic fungus Histoplasma capsulatum
Ans → histoplasmosis
Explanation →
Q. Name the bacteria that have more than 50% guanine and cytosine nucleotides in their DNA
Ans → high G+C gram-positive bacteria
Explanation →