This Post contains 50 Important multiple-choice questions (MCQ) designed for quick revision. These questions cover major pharmacy subjects, including Pharmaceutics, Pharmacology, Pharmaceutical Chemistry, Pharmacognosy, and Pharmacy Laws. Each question includes answer choices, the correct option, and a brief explanation to help you grasp key concepts efficiently.
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Q.1.
Which of the following is the prodrug of dopamine?
- Levodopa
- Epinephrine
- Norepinephrine
- Serotonin
Answer:
(a) Levodopa
Explanation: Levodopa crosses the blood-brain barrier and is converted into dopamine, which helps in Parkinson’s disease.
Explanation: Levodopa crosses the blood-brain barrier and is converted into dopamine, which helps in Parkinson’s disease.
Q.2.
Which phase of clinical trials determines the efficacy of a drug?
- Phase I
- Phase II
- Phase III
- Phase IV
Answer:
(c) Phase III
Explanation: Phase III trials confirm the drug's effectiveness in large populations before approval.
Explanation: Phase III trials confirm the drug's effectiveness in large populations before approval.
Q.3.
Which of the following drugs is an H2 receptor antagonist?
- Omeprazole
- Ranitidine
- Loratadine
- Fexofenadine
Answer:
(b) Ranitidine
Explanation: Ranitidine blocks H2 receptors in the stomach, reducing acid production.
Explanation: Ranitidine blocks H2 receptors in the stomach, reducing acid production.
Q.4.
What is the normal pH range of blood?
- 6.8 - 7.2
- 7.35 - 7.45
- 7.5 - 8.0
- 6.0 - 6.5
Answer:
(b) 7.35 - 7.45
Explanation: The normal pH of blood is maintained within 7.35-7.45 for homeostasis.
Explanation: The normal pH of blood is maintained within 7.35-7.45 for homeostasis.
Q.5.
Which schedule of the Drugs and Cosmetics Act regulates narcotic drugs in India?
- Schedule H
- Schedule X
- Schedule G
- Schedule C
Answer:
(b) Schedule X
Explanation: Schedule X drugs require special prescription and strict regulations due to addiction potential.
Explanation: Schedule X drugs require special prescription and strict regulations due to addiction potential.
Q.6.
Which dosage form is designed for controlled drug release?
- Tablet
- Capsule
- Sustained-release tablet
- Powder
Answer:
(c) Sustained-release tablet
Explanation: Sustained-release tablets release drugs gradually over time, improving compliance.
Explanation: Sustained-release tablets release drugs gradually over time, improving compliance.
Q.7.
What is the primary function of bile salts in digestion?
- Emulsification of fats
- Protein breakdown
- Carbohydrate digestion
- Acid neutralization
Answer:
(a) Emulsification of fats
Explanation: Bile salts help emulsify fats, making them easier to digest by lipase.
Explanation: Bile salts help emulsify fats, making them easier to digest by lipase.
Q.8.
Which vitamin deficiency causes rickets?
- Vitamin A
- Vitamin C
- Vitamin D
- Vitamin K
Answer:
(c) Vitamin D
Explanation: Vitamin D deficiency leads to rickets, causing weak bones in children.
Explanation: Vitamin D deficiency leads to rickets, causing weak bones in children.
Q.9.
Which instrument is used for sterilization by dry heat?
- Autoclave
- Hot air oven
- Laminar airflow
- UV chamber
Answer:
(b) Hot air oven
Explanation: Hot air oven sterilizes instruments by dry heat at 160°C for 2 hours.
Explanation: Hot air oven sterilizes instruments by dry heat at 160°C for 2 hours.
Q.10.
Which drug is commonly used in the treatment of tuberculosis?
- Rifampicin
- Amoxicillin
- Cephalexin
- Metronidazole
Answer:
(a) Rifampicin
Explanation: Rifampicin is part of the first-line treatment for tuberculosis (TB).
Explanation: Rifampicin is part of the first-line treatment for tuberculosis (TB).
Q.11.
Which polymer is used for enteric coating of tablets?
- Hydroxypropyl cellulose
- Eudragit
- Starch
- Gelatin
Answer:
(b) Eudragit
Explanation: Eudragit protects tablets from gastric acid and allows release in the intestine.
Explanation: Eudragit protects tablets from gastric acid and allows release in the intestine.
Q.12.
Which of the following is a β-lactam antibiotic?
- Ciprofloxacin
- Penicillin
- Vancomycin
- Erythromycin
Answer:
(b) Penicillin
Explanation: Penicillin contains a β-lactam ring, essential for its antibacterial activity.
Explanation: Penicillin contains a β-lactam ring, essential for its antibacterial activity.
Q.13.
What is the main site of drug metabolism?
- Kidney
- Liver
- Lungs
- Heart
Answer:
(b) Liver
Explanation: The liver is the primary organ for drug metabolism, mainly via CYP enzymes.
Explanation: The liver is the primary organ for drug metabolism, mainly via CYP enzymes.
Q.14.
Which neurotransmitter is mainly affected in Alzheimer’s disease?
- Dopamine
- Serotonin
- Acetylcholine
- GABA
Answer:
(c) Acetylcholine
Explanation: Alzheimer's disease is associated with a deficiency of acetylcholine.
Explanation: Alzheimer's disease is associated with a deficiency of acetylcholine.
Q.15.
Which anticoagulant is used in blood storage bags?
- Heparin
- Warfarin
- EDTA
- Citrate
Answer:
(d) Citrate
Explanation: Citrate prevents blood clotting by binding to calcium in storage bags.
Explanation: Citrate prevents blood clotting by binding to calcium in storage bags.
Q.16.
Which of the following is a third-generation cephalosporin?
- Cephalexin
- Ceftriaxone
- Cefuroxime
- Cefazolin
Answer:
(b) Ceftriaxone
Explanation: Ceftriaxone is a third-generation cephalosporin with a broad spectrum.
Explanation: Ceftriaxone is a third-generation cephalosporin with a broad spectrum.
Q.17.
Which hormone is responsible for milk ejection?
- Prolactin
- Oxytocin
- Estrogen
- Progesterone
Answer:
(b) Oxytocin
Explanation: Oxytocin stimulates milk ejection during breastfeeding.
Explanation: Oxytocin stimulates milk ejection during breastfeeding.
Q.18.
What is the normal shelf life of most pharmaceutical tablets?
- 1-2 years
- 3-5 years
- 5-7 years
- 10 years
Answer:
(b) 3-5 years
Explanation: Most tablets have a shelf life of 3-5 years under proper storage conditions.
Explanation: Most tablets have a shelf life of 3-5 years under proper storage conditions.
Q.19.
Which drug is used as an antidote for heparin overdose?
- Vitamin K
- Protamine sulfate
- EDTA
- Warfarin
Answer:
(b) Protamine sulfate
Explanation: Protamine sulfate neutralizes heparin to prevent excessive bleeding.
Explanation: Protamine sulfate neutralizes heparin to prevent excessive bleeding.
Q.20.
Which analytical technique is used for drug purity testing?
- NMR
- UV Spectroscopy
- IR Spectroscopy
- HPLC
Answer:
(d) HPLC
Explanation: HPLC (High-Performance Liquid Chromatography) is widely used for drug purity analysis.
Explanation: HPLC (High-Performance Liquid Chromatography) is widely used for drug purity analysis.
Q.21.
Which is an example of an aminoglycoside antibiotic?
- Tetracycline
- Amikacin
- Erythromycin
- Clindamycin
Answer:
(b) Amikacin
Explanation: Amikacin belongs to aminoglycosides, effective against gram-negative bacteria.
Explanation: Amikacin belongs to aminoglycosides, effective against gram-negative bacteria.
Q.22.
Which dosage form bypasses first-pass metabolism?
- Oral tablet
- Sublingual tablet
- Capsule
- Suppository
Answer:
(b) Sublingual tablet
Explanation: Sublingual tablets absorb directly into the bloodstream, avoiding liver metabolism.
Explanation: Sublingual tablets absorb directly into the bloodstream, avoiding liver metabolism.
Q.23.
Which of these is a synthetic corticosteroid?
- Prednisolone
- Adrenaline
- Insulin
- Thyroxine
Answer:
(a) Prednisolone
Explanation: Prednisolone is a synthetic corticosteroid used for inflammation and allergies.
Explanation: Prednisolone is a synthetic corticosteroid used for inflammation and allergies.
Q.24.
Which organ is most affected by nephrotoxic drugs?
- Liver
- Heart
- Kidneys
- Lungs
Answer:
(c) Kidneys
Explanation: Nephrotoxic drugs primarily damage the kidneys.
Explanation: Nephrotoxic drugs primarily damage the kidneys.
Q.25.
Which of the following is a macrolide antibiotic?
- Erythromycin
- Ciprofloxacin
- Amoxicillin
- Doxycycline
Answer:
(a) Erythromycin
Explanation: Erythromycin is a macrolide that inhibits bacterial protein synthesis.
Explanation: Erythromycin is a macrolide that inhibits bacterial protein synthesis.
Q.26.
Which one is a commonly used antiepileptic drug?
- Diazepam
- Phenytoin
- Paracetamol
- Ibuprofen
Answer:
(b) Phenytoin
Explanation: Phenytoin is widely used for controlling seizures.
Explanation: Phenytoin is widely used for controlling seizures.
Q.27.
Which of the following is used as a preservative in pharmaceutical preparations?
- Citric acid
- Chlorocresol
- Sucrose
- Starch
Answer:
(b) Chlorocresol
Explanation: Chlorocresol prevents microbial growth in formulations.
Explanation: Chlorocresol prevents microbial growth in formulations.
Q.28.
Which gas is used for sterilizing heat-sensitive equipment?
- Nitrogen
- Carbon dioxide
- Ethylene oxide
- Oxygen
Answer:
(c) Ethylene oxide
Explanation: Ethylene oxide gas is used for sterilizing surgical and medical devices.
Explanation: Ethylene oxide gas is used for sterilizing surgical and medical devices.
Q.29.
What is the use of mannitol in pharmacy?
- Diuretic
- Antibiotic
- Analgesic
- Antifungal
Answer:
(a) Diuretic
Explanation: Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic used to reduce pressure in the brain and eyes.
Explanation: Mannitol is an osmotic diuretic used to reduce pressure in the brain and eyes.
Q.30.
Which of the following is a sedative-hypnotic agent?
- Paracetamol
- Diazepam
- Aspirin
- Metformin
Answer:
(b) Diazepam
Explanation: Diazepam is a benzodiazepine with sedative and hypnotic effects.
Explanation: Diazepam is a benzodiazepine with sedative and hypnotic effects.
Q.31.
Which is a commonly used emulsifying agent?
- Sucrose
- Acacia
- Magnesium sulfate
- Sodium chloride
Answer:
(b) Acacia
Explanation: Acacia is used to stabilize emulsions in pharmaceutical preparations.
Explanation: Acacia is used to stabilize emulsions in pharmaceutical preparations.
Q.32.
Which vitamin is synthesized in the skin by sunlight?
- Vitamin A
- Vitamin B12
- Vitamin D
- Vitamin K
Answer:
(c) Vitamin D
Explanation: Vitamin D is synthesized when the skin is exposed to sunlight.
Explanation: Vitamin D is synthesized when the skin is exposed to sunlight.
Q.33.
Which drug class does Losartan belong to?
- Beta-blockers
- Calcium channel blockers
- ACE inhibitors
- ARBs
Answer:
(d) ARBs
Explanation: Losartan is an angiotensin receptor blocker used for hypertension.
Explanation: Losartan is an angiotensin receptor blocker used for hypertension.
Q.34.
Which laboratory test evaluates kidney function?
- LFT
- ECG
- Serum creatinine
- CBC
Answer:
(c) Serum creatinine
Explanation: Serum creatinine is a key indicator of kidney function.
Explanation: Serum creatinine is a key indicator of kidney function.
Q.35.
Which schedule deals with prescription drugs in India?
- Schedule H
- Schedule K
- Schedule P
- Schedule J
Answer:
(a) Schedule H
Explanation: Schedule H drugs are sold only on the prescription of a registered medical practitioner.
Explanation: Schedule H drugs are sold only on the prescription of a registered medical practitioner.
Q.36.
Which organelle is called the 'powerhouse of the cell'?
- Nucleus
- Golgi apparatus
- Mitochondria
- Ribosome
Answer:
(c) Mitochondria
Explanation: Mitochondria produce energy through ATP synthesis.
Explanation: Mitochondria produce energy through ATP synthesis.
Q.37.
Which drug is used to treat hyperthyroidism?
- Levothyroxine
- Methimazole
- Insulin
- Prednisone
Answer:
(b) Methimazole
Explanation: Methimazole inhibits thyroid hormone synthesis in hyperthyroidism.
Explanation: Methimazole inhibits thyroid hormone synthesis in hyperthyroidism.
Q.38.
Which electrolyte is critical for nerve impulse transmission?
- Calcium
- Magnesium
- Potassium
- Iron
Answer:
(c) Potassium
Explanation: Potassium plays a vital role in action potential transmission in nerves.
Explanation: Potassium plays a vital role in action potential transmission in nerves.
Q.39.
Which of the following is a loop diuretic?
- Spironolactone
- Furosemide
- Hydrochlorothiazide
- Amiloride
Answer:
(b) Furosemide
Explanation: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works in the ascending loop of Henle.
Explanation: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that works in the ascending loop of Henle.
Q.40.
Which part of the prescription contains instructions to the pharmacist?
- Superscription
- Inscription
- Subscription
- Signature
Answer:
(c) Subscription
Explanation: Subscription contains directions to the pharmacist about compounding and dispensing.
Explanation: Subscription contains directions to the pharmacist about compounding and dispensing.
Q.41.
What is the role of glidants in tablet formulation?
- Binders
- Disintegrants
- Flow enhancers
- Lubricants
Answer:
(c) Flow enhancers
Explanation: Glidants like talc improve the flow properties of powders.
Explanation: Glidants like talc improve the flow properties of powders.
Q.42.
Which test is used to detect the presence of reducing sugars?
- Molisch test
- Benedict's test
- Biuret test
- Tollen's test
Answer:
(b) Benedict's test
Explanation: Benedict’s test gives a brick-red precipitate in presence of reducing sugars.
Explanation: Benedict’s test gives a brick-red precipitate in presence of reducing sugars.
Q.43.
Which Indian body regulates drug approvals?
- CDSCO
- FDA
- WHO
- IMA
Answer:
(a) CDSCO
Explanation: Central Drugs Standard Control Organization regulates drug approvals in India.
Explanation: Central Drugs Standard Control Organization regulates drug approvals in India.
Q.44.
Which enzyme breaks down proteins in the stomach?
- Amylase
- Pepsin
- Lipase
- Trypsin
Answer:
(b) Pepsin
Explanation: Pepsin is the main proteolytic enzyme in the stomach.
Explanation: Pepsin is the main proteolytic enzyme in the stomach.
Q.45.
Which part of the plant is used in case of digitalis?
- Root
- Leaf
- Bark
- Flower
Answer:
(b) Leaf
Explanation: Leaves of Digitalis purpurea contain cardiac glycosides.
Explanation: Leaves of Digitalis purpurea contain cardiac glycosides.
Q.46.
Which is an example of a fixed-dose combination drug?
- Paracetamol
- Amoxicillin
- Lopinavir/Ritonavir
- Metformin
Answer:
(c) Lopinavir/Ritonavir
Explanation: Lopinavir/Ritonavir is a combination used in antiretroviral therapy.
Explanation: Lopinavir/Ritonavir is a combination used in antiretroviral therapy.
Q.47.
Which type of immunity is passed from mother to child?
- Active immunity
- Artificial immunity
- Passive natural immunity
- Adaptive immunity
Answer:
(c) Passive natural immunity
Explanation: Passive natural immunity is passed via placenta and breast milk.
Explanation: Passive natural immunity is passed via placenta and breast milk.
Q.48.
Which analytical method separates mixtures based on polarity?
- UV Spectroscopy
- Chromatography
- Titration
- Electrophoresis
Answer:
(b) Chromatography
Explanation: Chromatography separates compounds based on their polarity and interaction with the stationary phase.
Explanation: Chromatography separates compounds based on their polarity and interaction with the stationary phase.
Q.49.
Which drug is used for emergency contraception?
- Levonorgestrel
- Ethinylestradiol
- Misoprostol
- Mifepristone
Answer:
(a) Levonorgestrel
Explanation: Levonorgestrel is a commonly used emergency contraceptive pill.
Explanation: Levonorgestrel is a commonly used emergency contraceptive pill.
Q.50.
Which vitamin is essential for blood clotting?
- Vitamin A
- Vitamin D
- Vitamin E
- Vitamin K
Answer:
(d) Vitamin K
Explanation: Vitamin K is crucial for the synthesis of clotting factors.
Explanation: Vitamin K is crucial for the synthesis of clotting factors.
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